[Apologetics] Questions on Galatians
Stuart Gathman
stuart at gathman.org
Thu Jan 26 00:30:54 EST 2012
What are you answers?
I am working on questions for Galatians and the Barclay commentary.
Here is what I have so far:
Questions on Galatians
1. The context of Galatians seems to be whether adherence to the Mosaic Law
should be encouraged for Gentile believers (making them better
Christians).
It was already decided at Jerusalem that Gentile believers were
not *required* to keep the Jewish law.
Is Paul talking only about the Law of Moses, or is law (systems of
rules) in
general in mind?
Our commentator seems to interpret Paul as referring to law in general
(commentary on 1:6). He indirectly supports this in the commentary
on 4:21 by citing the 4 levels of Rabbinic interpretation, the
highest being allegorical.
2. Our commentator (1:6) describes the teaching of the Judaizers as, "Every
time a man performed a deed of the law, ..., that was a credit entry
in his
account with God." Was that really the teaching of the Judaizers?
Is there evidence of that in Galatians? Anywhere else?
a. I have heard many people today express the view that good deeds
"balance" bad deeds. Where does this idea come from? Even with
human laws, the thousands of times you stopped for a red light
do not "balance" the one time you did not.
b. Actually, past good behavior *does* make a human judge more inclined
to grant leniency. Isn't this a form of grace?
3. Gal 3:19 and commentary says the law was given to "define sin", but
has no power to cure it. In what sense does the Law of Moses
"define" sin?
a. Can Jewish believers be regarded as "living in sin" to the extent that
they fail to follow it? (This seems to be precisely what Paul is
rejecting.)
b. Are Jewish believers no longer Jewish if they reject the Law of
Moses as
such a standard? (This is how Jews regard conversion to Christianity.)
c. How can Gentile believers know if what they are doing is wrong?
Is sin defined by each individual conscience? (Is that what Romans
2:14-15 implies?)
d. Are we supposed to avoid worrying about whether we are sinning,
and trust
God to take care of it? (Note, deliberately doing what you know is
wrong is not in view here.)
4. Paul (2:11) criticizes Peter for inconsistent adherence to the rule
that Jews
should not eat with Gentiles. Is that rule a literal part
of the Law of Moses, or a tradition or interpretation?
a. Paul himself continued to follow parts of the Law of Moses,
although he
says his motivation is to avoid offending Jews so that they would be more
open to listen to the Gospel. Why is Paul free to choose *which*
parts to follow, but Peter may not choose *when* to follow them? Was
Peters problem one of motive (fear of the Judaizers) rather than
inconsistent application?
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